Apropos the conversation at work today about literalist interpretations of the Bible, here is a letter written to Dr. Laura asking some questions about how to apply the parts of the Bible that she doesn't talk about when condemning the various social behaviors she disagrees with.
I spent many an afternoon while at Michigan State listening to Dr. Laura and cracking up. This really hits the spot.
Lev. 25:44 states that I may indeed possess slaves, both male and female, provided they are purchased from neighboring nations. A friend of mine claims that this applies to Mexicans, but not Canadians. Can you clarify? Why can't I own Canadians?
found via reddit.com
